On Thu, Jan 22, 2009 at 10:31 PM, Mike Godwin <mnemonic(a)gmail.com> wrote:
Anthony writes:
Sure, but I'm not in a jurisdiction that
indisputably recognizes the
right
to attribution.
Okay, so why are you invoking rights that you don't have?
Just because a right isn't recognized, does not mean that I do not have it.
Sometimes I wonder whether you're being intentionally obtuse. How in the
world could a lawyer familiar with constitutional law not know that?
Seriously, that's appalling.