OK, after making that mistake, I guess I'm going to have to bow out of this argument. You may not have convinced me, but I think I just lost all credibility with anyone following along. :)
On Nov 23, 2007 1:22 PM, Anthony wikimail@inbox.org wrote:
On Nov 23, 2007 1:15 PM, Thomas Dalton thomas.dalton@gmail.com wrote:
And I don't see what making the value "logaritmic" has to do with anything. If the value of money is equal to the base ten logarithm of the amount of money, then the difference between 0 and 100 is equal to the difference between 100 and 1000, and thus is not infinite at all.
You may want to get a calculator and check that...
Touche. I should have said the difference between 100 and 10000.
log10(100)-log10(0)=log10(10000)-log10(100)? 2-0=4-2? 2=2? Yes.