I personally think that the reasonable middle ground would be that genuine accents and other real diacritical marks should be redirects to the accentless form, but where it is a question of what looks like an umlaut or circumflex or the like, actually being a completely separate letter than the letter which lacks that graphical feature, the misspelling used by ignorant English publications should be the redirect. I really think such cases qualify as a misspelling, and not a translitteration. But I don't expect to convince anyone. The question in general should not excite great discord, as long as there are redirects.