On Fri, 6 Aug 2010, private musings wrote:
You might consider sexual content as material which has a fairly high risk of causing harm if published without consent, I guess.
Why do you think "sexual content" (however that vauge term is defined) more likely to cause harm if published than any other situation? What "harm" is done surely depends on a combination of the individual depicted, their attitude they have to whatever it was they were doing, the laws of the country that person resides in, the laws of the country the photograph was taken in, the attitude of the law enforcement of both places, the attitude of the media in both those places, the attitude of the general public in both those places. For example a photograph of a high-profile Saudi Arabian woman wearing a very conservative one-piece swimsuit has the potential to cause more harm than a photograph of the genitals of an adult French man with no high publuc profile while he is having vanilla sex with an adult French woman with an equally low public profile.
Further, I think that we currently only require consent of privately taken photos if the person is identifiable - so for example if someone were to upload an image of them have sex with their ex-boyfriend, and perhaps only his genitals are visible, then under current practice, commons would not require his consent to publish this picture - I'm suggesting that it's probably best if we do require consent from all parties, for all sexual content (see the proposal page for specific definitions) - really because I do tend to think it's a higher risk for causing harm.
Why would an image of an unidentifiable man's genitals cause more harm than an image of an identifable man shoplifiting for example?
---- Chris McKenna
cmckenna@sucs.org www.sucs.org/~cmckenna
The essential things in life are seen not with the eyes, but with the heart
Antoine de Saint Exupery