[Foundation-l] Does "free content" exist in France?

Delphine Ménard notafishz at gmail.com
Fri Apr 20 17:54:07 UTC 2007

On 4/20/07, Jesse Martin (Pathoschild) <pathoschild at gmail.com> wrote:

> Given that moral rights include the right to attribution and the right
> to object to modification of one's work (independently of copyright
> and even after the transfer or expiry of copyright)*, and given that a
> significant portion of the English-speaking world recognizes moral
> rights, does this mean that the copyright policy and definition
> require impossible freedoms?

This is exactly what came to my mind when reading the bit Birgitte pointed out.

The part that says:
"regardless of the intent and purpose of such modifications. " seems
to be at best an ideal, at worst requiring the impossible, considering
all you pointed out.

I'll add that moral rights are not only recognized in the
English-speaking world, but basically in at least the whole western
world. France being one among many countries (yeah, I didn't like
France being singled out in the subject :P)

But then also, IANAL. :-)

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