On 5/3/07, geni <geniice(a)gmail.com> wrote:
On 5/3/07, Anthony <wikilegal(a)inbox.org> wrote:
All forms of "IP" are limited in ways
which make them more consistent
with the 1st amendment. For instance, with copyright infringement
law, there is fair use.
Going by how long the US got by without it that doesn't appear to be a
constitutional requirment as such.
How long did the US get by without it? You do realize that fair use
was created by the courts *long* before it was encoded into the
statutes.
Aditionaly it appears that the 1st amendment does not
protect the
disribution of child porn so it would appear there are limits.
Of course there are limits.
On the other hand the US gov never tried to inforce
the born secret
laws so that kind of law may be constitutional imposible. We don't
know.
Have you seen anything from lawyers working with
the EFF or the ACLU?
Nope have you?
Yes, I have.
Anthony