On Sun, 08 Aug 2004 15:28:36 -0700, Ray Saintonge
I suppose this all depends on there being a
relationship between the two versions of Serbian.
This is possible, to the best of my knowledge.
Some sounds which have one letter in Cyrillic have two letters in Latin,
but AFAIK those two-letter sequences always map to that one Cyrillic
letter, to the translation is unambiguous in both directions.